Can any object have momentum even if its mechanical energy is 0? explain.

yes i can explain this theoritically as 

let a body has both  P.E and K.E &   P.E = - K.E .  then totol mechanical energy =K.E +P.E =0

but momentum is there as body is having some velocity in this case

but i am not sure if it is practically possible or not as there is no such example striking me right now

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 can any object have mechanical energy even if momentum is zero?

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Because, the total mechanical energy is equal to sum of KE and PE. 

ie, KE+ PE = 0,

=> KE = PE = 0,

Since, KE = 0, its velocity is also 0,

and thus , momentum = 0 (since, momentum = mass * velocity) 


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Total Energy = K.E. + P.E.

K.E.: 1/2mv^2m is not 0. v is not 0. therefore mv (momentum is not 0) and as a whole K.E.: is not 0.P.E.: mgh m cannot be 0. g cannot be 0. h can be 0. As a whole, the value of P.E.: cannot be determined but since K.E. is not 0 then Total Energy cannot be 0.

An object can have mechanical energy even if it's momentum is 0.

K.E.: 0P.E.: mgh (same happens here but we consider that h has a value of more than 0)

Therefore, T.E. is not 0 in both cases

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Yes ...     M.E = K.E + P.E
Momenttum= 0 ..... So v=0
K;E= 1/2 mv2 .. v=0 so K.E =0 
But P.E=mgh .. v has no role in it . So there will be some P.E.

Thus, there will be M.E even if momentum is 0 . 

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But@mayanklaw of conservation of energy states TME is equal only before just before groundso if tme is only 0 when body is at rest as m cannot be 0 g cannot be 0,h= 0
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Answer fiven by @Liya Rose is correct! I am sorry for wrong answer.
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Answer given by  Liya  Bose isn't correct.   We  cannot  say  that  KE is  0.  Since  not  given  in  question.  So  we  can  still  have  KE = n.
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As, we know that momentum = mass * velocity. And there it's given that ME=0 Mass never become 0 so, there velocity should be 0.And if velocity is 0 then there is no momentum.
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The above answer given by Vishudh is wrong , because the Kinetic energy can never be negative ~ Kinetic energy is a scalar quantity as it is the addition of 2 vectors (the velocity*velocity in the K.E. formula)
Correct Answer:
The answer is "No" , because for an object to have momentum (mass * velocity) the object has to have a certain velocity. If an object has a velocity 'v' then the object also has a Kinetic energy = 1/2*m*v^2 .
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Momentum is the product of mass and velocity of a body, for a body mass never be zero but velocity can be zero if a body is at rest, So if a body is at rest its momentum is zero but if it is in rest at a height it possesses gravitational potential energy hence mechanical energy.
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no because  momentum is "mv' .
let PE be equal to 0.
for ME to be 0,Ke should also be zero.if KE is 0,then it means that  velocity is 0.(as mass cannot be 0).
if v=0 then
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