for proving that a function is one - one or injective,

f: R-R

we consider ( x1,x2) belonging to R

f(x1) = f(x2)

how does proving x1 = x2 imply that they are injective?

Question

for proving that a function is one - one or injective,
f: R-R
we consider ( x1,x2) belonging to R
f(x1) = f(x2)
how does proving x1 = x2 imply that they are injective?

Lalit Mehra · Accepted Answer

Hi!
Here is the answer to your question
<img width="631" height="184" src=
"https://s3mn%20mnimgs%20com/img/shared/userimages/mn_images/image/a1(167)%20png"
alt="">
Cheers!

for proving that a function is one - one or injective, f: R-R we consider ( x1,x2) belonging to R f(x1) = f(x2) how does proving x1 = x2 imply that they are injective?

for proving that a function is one - one or injective,

f: R-R

we consider ( x1,x2) belonging to R

f(x1) = f(x2)

how does proving x1 = x2 imply that they are injective?