if 14 is the half of 28 then why is not 16 for 32 explain experts
Dear Student,
Ans. Option c) is correct.
To answer these types of question, one must know that in a menstrual cycle the variations in number of days comes in the Follicular phase and the Luteal phase remains constant.
That means after ovulation, the cycle takes 14 days to complete. Ovulation is the release of an ovum from the ovary. It happens once in 28 days in human females. So, a woman is the most fertile (has the maximum chances of conceiving) during this period.
Thus, if a female has menstrual cycle of 32 days then, the ovulation will occur on 18th day (32 - 14 = 18).
So, as per the given question: from the 18th day onwards (until a week later), the woman is the most fertile.
Regards
Ans. Option c) is correct.
To answer these types of question, one must know that in a menstrual cycle the variations in number of days comes in the Follicular phase and the Luteal phase remains constant.
That means after ovulation, the cycle takes 14 days to complete. Ovulation is the release of an ovum from the ovary. It happens once in 28 days in human females. So, a woman is the most fertile (has the maximum chances of conceiving) during this period.
Thus, if a female has menstrual cycle of 32 days then, the ovulation will occur on 18th day (32 - 14 = 18).
So, as per the given question: from the 18th day onwards (until a week later), the woman is the most fertile.
Regards