In the start of the chapter's study material, it is written that poverty can be classified into 3 categories -

1. chronic poor -those were always poor. 2. transient poor -those who keep moving in and out of poverty. 3. never poor -those who are never in state of poverty.

However, if the third category never experiences poverty, then why is it classified as a category of poverty?

Dear Student, I see a point in your question. I think you are correct, since the last category consists of those who are never poor, then why we need to have this category. This is correct, if you go by the literal meaning of the word 'non-poor'. The reason that I think is valid behind this logic is simply to demarcate the poor people from the non-poor. I mean this thing is dead sure that these people can never be poor (say the corporate tycoons- Ambanis, Brilas, Mittals, etc.). This is just for classifying the people on the basis of the economic and health well being.
Hope this clarifies your doubt. However, if it is still not clear, then let us know. Keep posting!!

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