# Ques. How can the first law of motion be mathematically started from the second law of motion.

By Newton's second law of motion, we know that the acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.

i.e, F= m x a

Now let F=0, it means that the product of mass and acceleration must be zero i.e, m x a = 0.

Since mass can never be zero, it means that the acceleration must be zero for the equation to come true.

Hence a=0, which means if no force exerts on an object then no acceleration is produced. This is what we called Newton's first law.

Regards

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