show that function f:N ---> N, given by f(1) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = x-1 , for every x > 2 , is onto but not one to one.

plz donot give the ncert soln as its not clear.

We are given f: N ---> N, given by f(1) = f(2) = 1 and f(x) = x – 1 , for every x > 2

A function f: XY is said to be one-one (or injective) if the images of distinct elements of X under f are distinct. In other words, a function f is one-one if for every x1, x2X, f (x1) = f (x2) implies x1 = x2.

Since f(1) = f(2) = 1, but 1 ≠ 2.

Hence, the function is not one one.

A function f: XY is defined as onto (or surjective) if every element of Y is the image of some element of x in X under f. In other words, f is onto if " yY, there exist x X such that f (x) = y

It can be observed that for the given function, every element of Y has a pre-image in X. 

Hence the function is onto.

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see for x > 2 , f(x1) can never be equal to f(x2), its easy to see perhaps.

but given, f(1) = f(2) = 1

But by definition of one-one function,

If f(x1) = f(x2) then x1 = x2 or if f(x1) <> f(x2) then x1 <> x2 , "<>" - not equal to

hence the function given is not one-one

Again, it is onto as range is clearly N for ever domain belonging to 'N'

since the first input in f(x) can be 2 which gives 1 being the first natural no.

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any other way of explaining this? its not clear

but still thanx!

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