someone plz help me with 34 * 49 = ?

the answer will come if we dont subtract 1 from 50 +(-16-1) and directly divide by 2. but why do we have to do that, atsome places we subtract 1 and somewhere we don't have to, this is very confusing. plz help me.

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 Hi vibhavjoshi,,

in this case we do not subtract 1 in step no. 2 coz, the product of deficit is positive ,, if it would be negative then only we have to subtract 1... hope it will help u 

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 base=50 or 100/2

(-16) x (-1) =16                       34           -16                                                                                                    34-50=-16

(-16)+(-1) = (-17)              x    49             -1                                                                                                   49-50=-1

50+ (-17) = 33                        16           16

33 = 16.5                                               5                                  So, the answer is 1666.

2                                             16           66

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i know this i wanted to ask that why haven't we subtracted 1 from 33 after we ger 50-17 =33. and rest of the places we have done it,

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i mean in the examples and in the videos we have first subtracted 1 from it and then divided by 2. then y not here.

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 34 * 49 

  1.  9*4 =36 write 6 and 3 carry
  2. 9*3 +4*4  = 43 +3 = 46 . write 6 and 4 carry 
  3. 4*3 = 12 + 4 = 16 

        so the answer is   1666

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go to class 1st

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34*39

34

39

multiply 4 and 9 = 36 write 6 as the last digit of ur answer and keep 3 as remainder

crossmultiply and add 3*9 + 4*3 = 39 + remainder = 42

write 2 as second last digit and keep 4 as remainder.

cut out the left side  i.e 4 and 9 and multiply the rest

3*3 + remainder = 13

ur asnwer is 1326

u can use this to multiply n digit nos . but it get  a bit complicated

 

 

 

 

cut the left side i.e 4 and 9 

multiple the rest 

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The answer is =1666

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    34

 X49

4*9 +(9*3 + 4*4) + 3*3 = 1326

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