The left-hand derivative of f(x) = [x] sin(πx) at x = k, k is an integer is
(a) (–1) k (k  – 1)π                 (b)​ (–1) k – 1 (k  – 1)π                 (c) ​(–1) k  kπ          (d) ​(–1) k – 1 kπ 

hey bro @nev cant we write pi(k-1)(-1)^(k-1)Sinhpi/(-1) as -pi(k-1)(-1)^(k-1)Sinhpi/1 and then (-1)pi(k-1)(-1)^(k-1)Sinhpi then pi(k-1)(-1)^(k-1+1)Sinhpi so giving pi(k-1)(-1)^(k)Sinhpi.. hope this helps u bro...:)
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hmm.....right, thanks Harsh :-)
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Sawant kumar

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Sawant kumar rafiganj
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Lakhya

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