NDA I 2016 General Ability

This test contains 150 question. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You need to select only ONE response for each question.

All questions carry equal marks.

Each question for which a wrong answer has been marked, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.

If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

Question 1
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was………..
Option A: inevitable
Option B: undeniable
Option C: fatal
Option D: miserable
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 2
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

To explain his design to his visitors, the architect………a simple plan on the blackboard.
Option A: built
Option B: finalised
Option C: sketched
Option D: arranged
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 3
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was…………..by the Japanese.
Option A: cultivated
Option B: finished
Option C: perfected
Option D: enlarged
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 4
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is greatly admired for his…………….behaviour.
Option A: decrepit
Option B: decadent
Option C: decorative
Option D: decorous
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 5
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Would you mind ……………. to the Principal how the trouble started?
Option A: remarking
Option B: saying
Option C: explaining
Option D: talking
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 6
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Vaccination will make people immune ………….. certain diseases for a given period.
Option A: against
Option B: to
Option C: with
Option D: for
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 7
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to………….between them.
Option A: discriminate
Option B: discern
Option C: distinguish
Option D: identify
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 8
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The campers……..their tents at the base of the mountain.
Option A: installed
Option B: dug
Option C: pitched
Option D: established
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 9
In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake. Still he refused to ………….. the state secrets.
Option A: divulge
Option B: divert
Option C: indulge
Option D: invert
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 10
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He handled the machine with deft fingers.
Option A: delicate
Option B: sturdy
Option C: quick
Option D: clumsy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 11
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

I was deeply affected by his urbane behavior.
Option A: rural
Option B: rude
Option C: irrational
Option D: indifferent
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 12
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

His timidity proved costly.
Option A: arrogance
Option B: boldness
Option C: skillfulness
Option D: cunning
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 13
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.
Option A: significant
Option B: small
Option C: unruly
Option D: noisy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 14
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.
Option A: occupied
Option B: inattentive
Option C: engaged
Option D: absent
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 15
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

These are the main points of the preceding paragraph.
Option A: following
Option B: previous
Option C: first
Option D: last
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 16
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He made a shrewd guess.
Option A: clever
Option B: wild
Option C: incorrect
Option D: discriminating
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 17
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He is suffering from a severe cough.
Option A: violent
Option B: mild
Option C: bad
Option D: continuous
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 18
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs is quite bad.
Option A: Individually
Option B: Obviously
Option C: Clearly
Option D: Collectively
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 19
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He was conspicuous because of his colorful shirt.
Option A: charming
Option B: ugly
Option C: small
Option D: unnoticeable
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 20
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

He hates these continual arguments with his friend.
Option A: repeated
Option B: irrational
Option C: occasional
Option D: regular
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 21
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: She said that she was understanding
Option B: his point of view
Option C: very well.
Option D: No. error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 22
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: All the houses
Option B: being washed away
Option C: by the floods, the villagers sought shelter in the panchayat office.
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 23
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: It is necessary for us to familiarize with and
Option B: get used to the ways of the people
Option C: among whom we live
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 24
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: The mother asked her child
Option B: why did she cry out
Option C: in her sleep
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 25
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: I asked him that
Option B: why he was angry
Option C: but he did not answer
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 26
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: Had I not taken ill, I would
Option B: have sent you my research paper
Option C: much earlier
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 27
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could,
Option B: if left unchecked, do a lot of
Option C: damage to the crops
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 28
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: He had gone home three weeks ago and
Option B: was expected back yesterday, but he
Option C: has not come yet.
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 29
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: We must sympathize
Option B: for others
Option C: in their troubles
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 30
Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (1), (2) and (3). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number, i.e. (1) or (2) or (3). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (4).
Option A: The scientists in America
Option B: are trying for long
Option C: to discover the genes responsible for ageing
Option D: No error
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 31
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.
Option A: carried aloft
Option B: carried down
Option C: carried away
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 32
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.
Option A: rose another two feet
Option B: arisen another two feet
Option C: would raise another two feet
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 33
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars
Option A: seldom
Option B: hardly
Option C: ever
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 34
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

Applications of those who are graduates will be considered.
Option A: whom are graduates
Option B: whose are graduates
Option C: whom are only graduates
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 35
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

It is raining heavily all through this week.
Option A: has rained
Option B: notice from
Option C: rained
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 36
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

The sparrow took no notice about the bread.
Option A: notice of
Option B: notice from
Option C: notice to
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 37
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

As he spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.
Option A: big
Option B: tall
Option C: long
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 38
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

We ought to stand for what is right.
Option A: stand at
Option B: stand on
Option C: stand up
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 39
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

He enjoys to tell stories to children.
Option A: how to tell stories
Option B: telling stories
Option C: to narrate stories
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 40
In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible submissions for the underlined part. If one of them, (1), (2) or (3), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding number (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by number (4).

In a few minutes’ time, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.
Option A: shall be waiting
Option B: shall have been waiting
Option C: shall wait
Option D: No improvement
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 41
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening explosion.
Option A: dangerous
Option B: terrifying
Option C: mild
Option D: very loud
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 42
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.
Option A: usual
Option B: durable
Option C: commendable
Option D: some
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 43
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

When the new teacher entered the classroom, he found the pupils restive.
Option A: at rest
Option B: idle
Option C: quiet
Option D: impatient
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 44
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

There is no dearth of talent in this country.
Option A: scarcity
Option B: availability
Option C: plenty
Option D: absence
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 45
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The servants retired to their quarters.
Option A: entered
Option B: went away
Option C: ran away
Option D: mobilized
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 46
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The navy gave tactical support to the marines.
Option A: sensitive
Option B: strategic
Option C: immediate
Option D: expert
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 47
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.
Option A: dispute
Option B: disagree
Option C: distinguish
Option D: differ
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 48
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.
Option A: depressed
Option B: weakened
Option C: worried
Option D: defeated
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 49
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

His efforts at helping the poor are laudable.
Option A: welcome
Option B: sincere
Option C: good
Option D: praiseworthy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 50
Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in the given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

His conduct brought him reproach from all quarters.
Option A: rebuke
Option B: sympathy
Option C: indifference
Option D: remorse
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 51

The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Statement I: Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.

Statement II: The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.

Option A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Option B: Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Option C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Option D: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 52
The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Statement I: There is high salinity in the Red Sea.

Statement II: Rate of evaporation is high in the Red Sea.

Option A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Option B: Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Option C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Option D: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 53
The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Statement I: Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.

Statement II: Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.

Option A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Option B: Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Option C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Option D: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 54
The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practised in humid tropics.

Statement II: The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.

Option A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Option B: Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
Option C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Option D: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 55

The following questions consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Statement I: India has a wide variation in population density.

Statement II: Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.

Option A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Option B: Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Option C: Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Option D: Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 56
A container is first filled with water and then entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has a density of 13.6×10³kg/m³. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then
Option A: X = Y
Option B: X = 13.6 Y
Option C: Y = 13.6 X
Option D: None of the above
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 57
Density of water is
Option A: maximum at 0 ºC
Option B: minimum at 0 ºC
Option C: maximum at 4 ºC
Option D: minimum at -4 ºC
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 58
The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is
Option A: Red phosphorus
Option B: Black phosphorus
Option C: White phosphorus
Option D: Scarlet phosphorus
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 59
Which of the following is not a chemical change?
Option A: Ripening of fruits
Option B: Curdling of milk
Option C: Freezing of water
Option D: Digestion of food
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 60
One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emission from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like

(1) Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

(2) Carbon monoxide (CO)

(3) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

(4) Benzene

Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?
Option A: 1 and 4 only
Option B: 1 and 2 only
Option C: 1, 2 and 3 only
Option D: 1, 2 and 4 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 61
Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East to West.

1. Rishikesh 2. New Delhi

3. Patna 4. Bhubaneswar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Option A: 4-3-1-2
Option B: 4-1-3-2
Option C: 3-4-2-1
Option D: 3-2-1-4
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 62
Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become:
Option A: F
Option B: 2 F
Option C: 4 F
Option D: ¼ F
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 63
A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, the body would:
Option A: lose one-fourth of its total energy
Option B: lose one-fourth of its potential energy
Option C: gain one-fourth of its potential energy
Option D: gain three-fourth of its total energy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 64
Soap is sodium or potassium salt of:
Option A: Stearic acid
Option B: Oleic acid
Option C: Palmitic acid
Option D: All of the above
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 65
Mass of a particular amount of substance:

1. is the amount of matter present in it.

2. does not vary from place to place.

3. changes with a change in gravitational force.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 2 and 3 only
Option B: 1 and 2 only
Option C: 2 and 3 only
Option D: 1 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 66
Which of the following substances are harmful to health if present in food items?

1. Pesticide residues

2. Lead

3. Metanil yellow

4. Mercury

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 1 and 2 only
Option B: 1, 2 and 4 only
Option C: 3 and 4 only
Option D: 1, 2,3 and 4 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 67
In India, glacial terraces known as “Karewas” are found in:
Option A: Sapt Kosi Valley
Option B: Jhelum Valley
Option C: Alakananda Valley
Option D: Teesta Valley
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 68
Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of:
Option A: Shiwalik Range
Option B: Deccan Plateau
Option C: Greater Himalaya
Option D: Aravalli Range
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 69
Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The mass of B is double that of A. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?
Option A: Momentum of B will be double that of A
Option B: Momentum of A will be double that of B
Option C: Momentum of B will be four times that of A
Option D: Momenta of both A and B will be equal
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 70
During solar eclipse:
Option A: the earth comes in between the sun and the moon
Option B: the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
Option C: the moon comes exactly half-way between the earth and the sun
Option D: the sun comes in between the earth and the moon
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 71
The S.I. unit of acceleration is:
Option A: ms⁻¹
Option B: ms⁻²
Option C: cms⁻²
Option D: kms⁻²
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 72
An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
Option A: 12
Option B: 6
Option C: 10
Option D: 14
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 73
Which of the following is a reduction reaction?
Option A: 2 Mg (s) + O₂ (g) → 2 MgO (s)
Option B: S (s) + O₂ (g) → SO₂ (g)
Option C: $2 HgO (s) \overset{heat}{\to} 2 Hg (l) + O_{2} (g)$
Option D: Mg (s) + S(s) → 2 MgS (s)
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 74
Which of the commonly used household item(s) release(s) Bisphenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?

1. Steel utensils

2. Plastic coffee mugs

3. Aluminium utensils

4. Plastic water-storage bottles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 1 only
Option B: 1 and 2 only
Option C: 2 and 4 only
Option D: 1, 2 and 3 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 75
The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is located on which of the following rivers?
Option A: Godavari
Option B: Krishna
Option C: Kaveri
Option D: Mahanadi
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 76
Consider the following statements:

1. Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.

2. Bundelkhand gneiss belongs to the oldest Archaean rocks of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option A: 1 only
Option B: 2 only
Option C: Both 1 and 2
Option D: Neither 1 nor 2
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 77
An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be:
Option A: real and magnified
Option B: virtual and magnified
Option C: real and reduced
Option D: virtual and reduced
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 78
A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be:
Option A: real, inverted and magnified
Option B: real, erect and magnified
Option C: virtual, erect and reduced
Option D: virtual, erect and magnified
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 79
Which of the following is a conventional energy source?
Option A: Tidal energy
Option B: Geothermal energy
Option C: Solar energy
Option D: Biomass energy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 80
Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as 'anhydride' of nitric acid?
Option A: N₂O
Option B: N₂O₃
Option C: NO₂
Option D: N₂O₅
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 81
Which of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?
Option A: Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
Option B: Sodium carbonate
Option C: Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)
Option D: Potassium carbonate
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 82

Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?

1.	DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
2.	All segments of DNA code for the synthesis of proteins.
3.	Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.
4.	DNA is also found in mitochondria.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1, 2 and 3 only

Option B: 3 and 4 only

Option C: 1, 3 and 4 only

Option D: 4 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 83
Which organisation prepares the topographical maps of India?
Option A: Geological Survey of India
Option B: Archaeological Survey of India
Option C: Survey of India
Option D: National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 84
Which of the following is not an international boundary line?
Option A: Dresden Line
Option B: Durand Line
Option C: Maginot Line
Option D: 38^th Parallel
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 85
A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm towards the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is:
Option A: 40 cm
Option B: 60 cm
Option C: 80 cm
Option D: 120 cm
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 86
The brightness of a star depends on its:
Option A: size and temperature only
Option B: size and distance from the earth
Option C: size, temperature, and mass
Option D: size, temperature, and distance from the earth
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 87
When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called:
Option A: Condensation
Option B: Evaporation
Option C: Sublimation
Option D: Diffusion
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 88
Which of the following is water gas?
Option A: Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
Option B: Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
Option C: Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
Option D: Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 89

Which of the following statements is/are correct? In honey bees:

1.	Males are haploid.
2.	Workers are sterile and diploid.
3.	Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal jelly.
4.	Honey is collected/made by males.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1, 2, 3 and 4

Option B: 2 and 3 only

Option C: 1, 2 and 3 only

Option D: 1 and 4 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 90
The Amarkantak Hills are the source of which of the following rivers?

1. Narmada 2. Mahanadi

3. Tapti 4. Son

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 1 and 2 only
Option B: 2 only
Option C: 1, 3 and 4 only
Option D: 1, 2 and 4 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 91

Which of the following statements in the context of the northern hemisphere is/are correct?

1.	Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
2.	Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
3.	Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
4.	Winter solstice occurs on June 21.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 1 and 3 only

Option C: 2 and 4 only

Option D: 1, 2 and 3 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 92
A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is left in a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?
Option A: The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
Option B: The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
Option C: The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
Option D: The water does not freeze at all
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 93
A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and a bulb having 24-ohm resistance. When you turn on the switch, the ammeter connected in the circuit would read:
Option A: 0.5 A
Option B: 2 A
Option C: 4 A
Option D: 5 A
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 94
Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohms are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the system would be:
Option A: less than 2 ohms
Option B: more than 2 ohms but less than 4 ohms
Option C: 4 ohms
Option D: 14 ohms
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 95
Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D', 'A' contains plain water, 'B' contains solution of an alkali, 'C' contains solution of an acid, and 'D' contains solution of sodium chloride. Which of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?
Option A: Solution 'A'
Option B: Solution 'B'
Option C: Solution 'C'
Option D: Solution 'D'
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 96
Which of the following oxides dissolves in water?
Option A: CuO
Option B: Al₂O₃
Option C: Fe₂O₃
Option D: Na₂O
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 97
To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have

1. low cholesterol level

2. high HDL level

3. high VLDL level

4. high LDL level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 1 and 2 only
Option B: 1, 2 and 4 only
Option C: 3 and 4 only
Option D: 1, 2 and 3 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 98
Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of:
Option A: Equatorial forest
Option B: Temperate coniferous forest
Option C: Monsoon forest
Option D: Temperate deciduous forest
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 99
'Sal' tree is a:

Option A: Tropical evergreen tree
Option B: Tropical semi-evergreen tree
Option C: Dry deciduous tree
Option D: Moist deciduous tree
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 100
Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is:
Option A: Liquid < Gas < Solid
Option B: Solid < Liquid < Gas
Option C: Gas < Liquid < Solid
Option D: Solid < Gas < Liquid
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 101
The temperature at which solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of:
Option A: strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
Option B: strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
Option C: molecular mass
Option D: molecular size
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 102
Consider the following circuit:

The equivalent resistance of the circuit will be:
Option A: $12 Ω$
Option B: $8 \frac{11}{12} Ω$
Option C: $9 \frac{1}{11} Ω$
Option D: $\frac{24}{25} Ω$
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 103
Which of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H₂?
Option A: Hg
Option B: Al
Option C: Mg
Option D: Fe
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 104
Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?

Vector Disease

Anopheles Malaria

Aedes aegypti Chikungunya

Tsetse fly Filariasis

Bed bugs Sleeping sickness

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 1, 2 and 3 only
Option B: 1 and 2 only
Option C: 1 and 4 only
Option D: 2 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 105

Consider the following statements.

1.	All Echinoderms are not marine.
2.	Sponges are exclusively marine.
3.	Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
4.	Many primates are arboreal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Option A: 1, 3 and 4 only

Option B: 3 and 4 only

Option C: 2 and 4 only

Option D: 3 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 106
Areas which are engines of economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as:
Option A: Export Processing Zones
Option B: Duty-Free Tariff Zones
Option C: Special Economic Zones
Option D: Technology Parks
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 107
Deserts, fertile plains, and moderately forested mountains are the characteristic features of which of the following regions of India?
Option A: South-Western border along the Arabian Sea
Option B: Coromandel Coast
Option C: North-Eastern Frontier
Option D: North-Western India
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 108
A racing car accelerates on a straight road from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the car throughout, the distance covered in this time will be:
Option A: 625 m
Option B: 1250 m
Option C: 2500 m
Option D: 50 m
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 109
A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in a lift. If the cable of the lift breaks suddenly, the weight of the man would become:
Option A: 70 kg
Option B: 35 kg
Option C: 140 kg
Option D: Zero
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 110
A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced will be:
Option A: 2000 J
Option B: 4000 J
Option C: 8000 J
Option D: 1000 J
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 111
Which of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?
Option A: Benzene
Option B: Hexane
Option C: Naphthalene
Option D: Anthracene
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 112

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists.

	List-I		List-II
	(Molecule)		(Product of Digestion)
(a)	Proteins	1.	Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
(b)	Carbohydrates	2.	Fatty acids and glycerol
(c)	Nucleic acids	3.	Monosaccharides
(d)	Lipids	4.	Amino acids

Codes:

Option A:

A	B	C	D
2	3	1	4

Option B:

A	B	C	D
2	1	3	4

Option C:

A	B	C	D
4	1	3	2

Option D:

A	B	C	D
4	3	1	2

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 113
In the Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as:
Option A: Dhrian
Option B: Daurs
Option C: Dhoros
Option D: Dhaya
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 114
The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its:
Option A: force
Option B: momentum
Option C: work done
Option D: energy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 115
Which of the following statements with regard to the expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?
Option A: As the ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4 °C.
Option B: Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.
Option C: A small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating.
Option D: The length of metallic wire increases when its temperature is increased.
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 116

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

	(National Park)		(Famous for)
1.	Ranthambhore	:	Tiger
2.	Periyar	:	Elephant
3.	Manas	:	Lion
4.	Gir	:	Rhinoceros

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1, 2 and 3 only

Option B: 1 and 2 only

Option C: 1 and 4 only

Option D: 2 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 117
Which of the following is not a form of stored energy?
Option A: Nuclear energy
Option B: Potential energy
Option C: Electrical energy
Option D: Chemical energy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 118
The motion of a car along a straight path is shown in the following figure:

The car starts from 0 and reaches A, B and C at different instances of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are respectively:
Option A: 25 km and 60 km
Option B: 95 km and 35 km
Option C: 60 km and 25 km
Option D: 85 km and 35 km
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 119
Jelep La pass is located in:
Option A: Punjab Himalaya
Option B: Sikkim Himalaya
Option C: Kumaon Himalaya
Option D: Kashmir Himalaya
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 120
What is the number of mole(s) of H₂(g) required to saturate one mole of benzene?
Option A: 1
Option B: 2
Option C: 3
Option D: 4
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 121
Which of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its Content is/are not correctly matched?
Option A:

Schedule Content

Eighth Schedule : Languages

Option B:

Schedule Content

Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and affirmations

Option C:

Schedule Content

Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Council of States

Option D:

Schedule Content

Tenth Schedule : Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 122

Consider the following statements:

1.	The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in a simple majority.
2.	Jammu and Kashmir have been given special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 2 only

Option C: Both 1 and 2 only

Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 123
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office in writing, addressed to the:
Option A: President of India
Option B: Prime Minister of India
Option C: Vice President of India
Option D: Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 124
Who among the following is the founder of the 'Bachpan Bachao Andolan'?
Option A: Shantha Sinha
Option B: Kailash Satyarthi
Option C: Aruna Roy
Option D: Anil Agarwal
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 125

Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?

1.	Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor
2.	Enhancing financial literacy
3.	Provision for accidental insurance to the account-holders
4.	Allowing bank accounts with zero balance

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 and 4 only

Option B: 1, 2 and 3 only

Option C: 2 and 3 only

Option D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 126

The Election Commission recognises a political party as a national party if:

1.	it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
2.	it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 2 only

Option C: Both 1 and 2

Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 127
Which of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of a development strategy?
Option A: Development of capital goods industries
Option B: Major involvement of the State in the economy
Option C: Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector
Option D: Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 128
Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012-2017)?
Option A: Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth
Option B: Modernisation of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure
Option C: Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes
Option D: Checking Inflammation and Strengthening Non-economic Variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 129
Nabhha Sparsham Diptam is the motto of:
Option A: Central Industrial Security Force
Option B: Indian Air Force
Option C: ISRO
Option D: Indian Navy
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 130

Consider the following statements:

1.	The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
2.	The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 2 only

Option C: Both 1 and 2

Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 131

Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?

1.	The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.
2.	The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3.	The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 2 and 3 only

Option C: 1 and 2 only

Option D: 1, 2 and 3

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 132

Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?

1.	A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
2.	The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3.	A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 and 2 only

Option B: 2 only

Option C: 1,2 and 3

Option D: 3 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 133
Which of the following nations adopted its first democratic Constitution in September 2015?
Option A: Bhutan
Option B: Myanmar
Option C: Nepal
Option D: Singapore
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 134
Who among the following was defeated by Novak Djokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men's Singles event (2015)?
Option A: Tommy Robredo
Option B: Fabio Fognini
Option C: Roger Federer
Option D: Pablo Cuevas
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 135
The citizens of India do not have which of the following Fundamental Rights?
Option A: Rights to reside and settle in any part of India
Option B: Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
Option C: Right to practice any profession
Option D: Right to form co-operative societies
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 136
Which among the following Acts for the first time allowed Indians, at least theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?
Option A: Charter Act, 1813
Option B: Charter Act, 1833
Option C: Charles Wood's Education Dispatch, 1854
Option D: Indian Councils Act, 1861
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 137
Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:

1. They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.

2. They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option A: 1 only
Option B: 2 only
Option C: Both 1 and 2
Option D: Neither 1 nor 2
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 138
After a ban on unscientific coal-mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred to above is:
Option A: Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya
Option B: Koriya, Chhattisgarh
Option C: Angul, Odisha
Option D: Bardhaman, West Bengal
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 139

Which of the following statements about the first Act of the Revolt in 1857 is/are true?

1.	It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer's rifle.
2.	It began when the Rani of Jhansi declared war on the British
3.	It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
4.	It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 2 only

Option B: 1, 2 and 3 only

Option C: 4 only

Option D: 1 and 4 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 140

Which of the following statements about Gandhiji's Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?

1.	Hind Swaraj offers a civilisational concept of the Indian nation.
2.	Hind Swaraj states that Parliamentary democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings of Indians.
3.	Hind Swaraj argues that Industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 3 only

Option B: 1, 2 and 3

Option C: 1 and 3 only

Option D: 1 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 141

Division of labour often involves

1.	specialised economic activity.
2.	highly distinct productive roles.
3.	involving everyone in many of the same activities.
4.	individuals engage in only a single activity and are dependent on others to meet their various needs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Option A: 1, 2 and 4 only

Option B: 1, 3 and 4 only

Option C: 3 only

Option D: 2 and 4 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 142
Who among the following is/was associated with 'Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti'?
Option A: Chandi Prasad Bhatt
Option B: Narendra Dabholkar
Option C: G.D. Agrawal
Option D: Kailash Satyarthi
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 143

Consider the following statements:

1.	Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasa for the study and teaching of Muslim- law-related subjects.
2.	Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 2 only

Option C: Both 1 and 2

Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 144
Consider the following statements about Sufism in India:

1. Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.

2. The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option A: 1 only
Option B: 2 only
Option C: Both 1 and 2
Option D: Neither 1 nor 2
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 145
Which of the following thinkers and movements influenced the development of Gandhiji's political ideas?

1. Henry David Thoreau 2. John Ruskin

3. John Milton 4. Jainism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Option A: 1 only
Option B: 1, 2 and 3 only
Option C: 1, 2 and 4 only
Option D: 2 and 4 only
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 146
Consider the following statements:

1. The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.

2. The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Option A: 1 only
Option B: 2 only
Option C: Both 1 and 2
Option D: Neither 1 nor 2
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 147

Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?

1.	Permission of 100 percent FDI in automotive sector
2.	Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49 percent
3.	Permission of up to 51 percent FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions
4.	Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 2 and 4 only

Option C: 1 and 2 only

Option D: 1,2 and 3 only

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 148
Which of the following is/are the component(s) of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?

1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas.

2. Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only
Option B: 2 only
Option C: Both 1 and 2
Option D: Neither 1 nor 2
VIEW SOLUTION

Question 149

Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?

1.	The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
2.	Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharaja of Burdwan.
3.	Keshub Chandra Sen's followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
4.	The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 1 and 2 only

Option C: 2 and 3 only

Option D: 1, 2, 3 and 4

VIEW SOLUTION

Question 150

Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?

1.	To foster a mutual appreciation of each other’s culture and literature among nations
2.	To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character
3.	To foster relations between scholars and academicians in different countries
4.	To organise international conferences

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Option A: 1 only

Option B: 1, 2 and 4 only

Option C: 2 only

Option D: 1, 2 and 3 only

VIEW SOLUTION

(1)	Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
(2)	Carbon monoxide (CO)
(3)	Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
(4)	Benzene

1.	is the amount of matter present in it.
2.	does not vary from place to place.
3.	changes with a change in gravitational force.

1.	Steel utensils
2.	Plastic coffee mugs
3.	Aluminium utensils
4.	Plastic water-storage bottles

1.	Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
2.	Bundelkhand gneiss belongs to the oldest Archaean rocks of India.

1.	low cholesterol level
2.	high HDL level
3.	high VLDL level
4.	high LDL level

Vector	Disease
Anopheles	Malaria
Aedes aegypti	Chikungunya
Tsetse fly	Filariasis
Bed bugs	Sleeping sickness

Schedule		Content
Second Schedule	:	The forms of oaths and affirmations

Schedule		Content
Fourth Schedule	:	Allocation of seats in the Council of States

Schedule		Content
Tenth Schedule	:	Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection

1.	They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
2.	They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large grants.

1.	Rishikesh	2.	New Delhi
3.	Patna	4.	Bhubaneswar

1.	Pesticide residues
2.	Lead
3.	Metanil yellow
4.	Mercury

1.	Narmada	2.	Mahanadi
3.	Tapti	4.	Son

1.	Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
2.	The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.

1.	The Arthashastra is the first Indian text to define a State.
2.	The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origins of the state.

1.	Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas.
2.	Metering of distribution transformers/feeders/consumers in the rural areas.