NDA II 2016 General Ability

• Question 1
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: My friend was

  Option B: habitual to drive a car

  Option C: at very high speed.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 2
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: Being a day of national mourning

  Option B: the offices were closed

  Option C: and the national flag flew half-mast.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 3
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: If you are wanting to watch

  Option B: the birds nesting

  Option C: you must not let them see you

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 4
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: He does not listen to

  Option B: what I say

  Option C: although I am advising him for a long time.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 5
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: It is most essential for us

  Option B: to reach the station before noon

  Option C: lest we should miss the train.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 6
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: I asked him

  Option B: what had brought

  Option C: him there.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 7
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: The guards

  Option B: dare not

  Option C: to harm him.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 8
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: The Principal looks very worried

  Option B: because the students are on strike for the last fifteen days as a protest against

  Option C: his disciplinary action against some miscreants.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 9
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: The king was embarrassed

  Option B: to find evidence

  Option C: against his own queen.

  Option D: No error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 10
  Each question in the section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out, whether there is any error in any part and indicate your response against the corresponding letter, i.e. (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

  Option A: As I prefer coffee than tea

  Option B: my friends always take the trouble

  Option C: to get me a cup of coffee whenever I visit them.

  Option D: no error

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 11
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly admired.

  Option A: Duty of a doctor

  Option B: Generosity shown to guests

  Option C: Cleanliness in hospitals

  Option D: Kindness

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 12
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  House rent in cities like Mumbai or Delhi has risen to astronomical figures beyond the reach of even high-salaried people.

  Option A: exorbitant

  Option B: commercial

  Option C: planetary

  Option D: illogical

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 13
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  Appropriate technology holds the key to a Nation's development.

  Option A: Modern

  Option B: Suitable

  Option C: Effective

  Option D: Growing

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 14
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  He was enamored of his own golden voice.

  Option A: very fond of

  Option B: concerned with

  Option C: obsessed with

  Option D: imbued with

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 15
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  Some journalists are guilty of indulging in yellow journalism.

  Option A: misrepresentation

  Option B: vulgarization

  Option C: sensational reporting

  Option D: loud gestures

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 16
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  The culprit was sentenced by the Court.

  Option A: acquitted

  Option B: punished

  Option C: relieved

  Option D: pardoned

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 17
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  Thrifty as he is, he can well afford to live within his means.

  Option A: Careless

  Option B: Instinctive

  Option C: Sentimental

  Option D: Extravagant

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 18
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  Do not give him a responsible job, he is immature.

  Option A: thoughtful

  Option B: cautious

  Option C: calculating

  Option D: seasoned

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 19
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  I was prepared to show my hand provided he agreed to do the same.

  Option A: to yield

  Option B: to shake hands

  Option C: to conceal my plan

  Option D: to lose my ground

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 20
  Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
  
  Akbar, the great, was a sagacious ruler.

  Option A: haughty

  Option B: cunning

  Option C: rude

  Option D: unwise

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 21
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  She has been lying in bed for the last fortnight. I hope she will ….........…….. .

  Option A: come out

  Option B: pull out

  Option C: pull through

  Option D: go out

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 22
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  The path of progress is beset …………. difficulties.

  Option A: with

  Option B: by

  Option C: through

  Option D: along

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 23
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  I feel _________ for those, who are cruel to their children.

  Option A: sympathy

  Option B: contempt

  Option C: admiration

  Option D: craving

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 24
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  Both the parties were keen to have an …….....…… settlement of the dispute.

  Option A: enviable

  Option B: inimical

  Option C: worthy

  Option D: amicable

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 25
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  I have come to know that the two brothers have …….......…..

  Option A: fallen through

  Option B: fallen out

  Option C: fallen for

  Option D: fallen short

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 26
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  Everybody finds his own work _____________ whereas he feels that others have delightful jobs.

  Option A: tedious

  Option B: fabulous

  Option C: unprofitable

  Option D: indecent

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 27
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  The accident took place because of the criminal ____________ of the driver.

  Option A: performance

  Option B: disregard

  Option C: negligence

  Option D: slacknes

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 28
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  The belief in the ____________ of vaccination is gaining ground.

  Option A: immunity

  Option B: prevalence

  Option C: efficacy

  Option D: workability

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 29
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  Our new leader is a ____________ young man and will take us forward.

  Option A: haughty

  Option B: intoxicated

  Option C: fanciful

  Option D: dynamic

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 30
  Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response.
  
  They found a world of _________between what he said and what he did.

  Option A: chaos

  Option B: bitterness

  Option C: difference

  Option D: hope

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 31
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
   

  The statement	therefore you must listen carefully	/what the speaker has said	/in order to understand	/will be made just once.
  	P	Q	R	S

  
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: S P R Q

  Option B: S R Q P

  Option C: R S P Q

  Option D: S P Q R

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 32
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
   

  The small boy who	broke his leg	/fell down	/and	/climbed the wall.
  	P	Q	R	S

  
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: P S R Q

  Option B: S Q R P

  Option C: Q S R P

  Option D: S P R Q

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 33
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
  
  
  According to an engineer   might hit the market next year /  a newly developed air-cooler system/
                                                                    P                                                        Q
  that employed in conventional room coolers /, which is based on a principle radically different from.
                                 R                                                                                        S
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: S Q R P

  Option B: R S Q P

  Option C: Q S R P

  Option D: P Q R S

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 34
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
   

  The clerk	on the desk	/left the money	/in the safe	/which he should have locked up
  	P	Q	R	S

  
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: S R Q P

  Option B: Q R S P

  Option C: P Q R S

  Option D: Q P S R

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 35
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
   

  Hardly had my brother descended from the plane	when the people	/waved and cheered	/who had come to receive him	/from the lounge.
  	P	Q	R	S

  
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: P Q R S

  Option B: R S P Q

  Option C: R P Q S

  Option D: P R Q S

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 36
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
   

  The essay	like that of the human face	/because its variety is infinite	/is a literary form	/which is not easy to define.
  	P	Q	R	S

  
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: P Q R S

  Option B: P Q S R

  Option C: R S Q P

  Option D: R S P Q

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 37
  Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the first phrase of which has been underlined. The remaining sentence has been divided in four parts, which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.
   

  The exhibition committee	attractive and useful	/to make the exhibition	/making efforts	/has been.
  	P	Q	R	S

  
  The proper sequence should be

  Option A: Q S R P

  Option B: S R Q P

  Option C: Q P S R

  Option D: S P Q R

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 38
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  My old teacher gave many poor students money in spite of he was poor.

  Option A: Even though

  Option B: as if

  Option C: however

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 39
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  You should to read the newspapers regularly, if you want to be well-informed.

  Option A: ought

  Option B: have to

  Option C: should be

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 40
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  If he had listening to me, he would not have got lost.

  Option A: listened me 

  Option B: listened to me

  Option C: listen me

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 41
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  He asked for a bank loan also he did not have sufficient resources.

  Option A: because

  Option B: even if

  Option C: requiring

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 42
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  I went to the shop to buy some stationeries.

  Option A: stationery

  Option B: stationary

  Option C: stationaries

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 43
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  I have been waiting here for the last 2 hours.

  Option A: from

  Option B: since

  Option C: by

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 44
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  The table needs to be painted.

  Option A: paint

  Option B: painting

  Option C: having paint

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 45
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  It began to rain heavily just when I prepare to go out.

  Option A: prepared

  Option B: was preparing

  Option C: have prepared

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 46
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  The couple seemed to love one another very much.

  Option A: every other

  Option B: each

  Option C: each other

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 47
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  It is high time that we did something.

  Option A: had done

  Option B: would do

  Option C: have done

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 48
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  If I were a millionaire, I would have helped the poor.

  Option A: am capable of helping

  Option B: could have helped

  Option C: would help

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 49
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  The training program was extended for a month.

  Option A: from

  Option B: until

  Option C: since

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 50
  Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No Improvement’ response will be signified by the number (d).
  
  The painting which they were looking at was done by my sister.

  Option A: what

  Option B: that

  Option C: whom

  Option D: No improvement

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 51
  The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   

  Statement I:	Variability of annual rainfall is very high in western part of Rajasthan.
  Statement II:	Average annual rainfall is extremely low in western Rajasthan.

  
  Codes:

  Option A: Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option B: Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option C: Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

  Option D: Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 52
  The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   

  Statement I:	Ozone is a tri-atomic molecule of oxygen.
  Statement II:	Ozone is concentrated mainly in the stratosphere.

  
  Codes:

  Option A: Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option B: Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option C: Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

  Option D: Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 53
  The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   

  Statement I:	the laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
  Statement II:	Laterite soils are the result of intense leaching process.

  
  Codes:

  Option A: Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option B: Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option C: Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

  Option D: Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 54
  The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   

  Statement I:	Too much salt content in diet could be one of the reasons for kidney failure.
  Statement II:	High salt may cause high blood pressure.

  
  Codes:

  Option A: Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option B: Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option C: Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

  Option D: Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 55
  The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   

  Statement I:	The city of Rome revived in a spectacular way in the 15th century.
  StatementII:	From the 15th century onwards, artists were known individually by name, not as members of a group or a guild in the Roman society.

  
  Codes:

  Option A: Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option B: Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option C: Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

  Option D: Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 56
  The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
   

  Statement I:	Chartism was the political reform campaign for democratic rights, which swept over Britain between 1838 and 1848.
  Statement II:	The Trade Union Movement declined by the 1830s as it failed to fulfill the aspirations of the working class.

  
  Codes:

  Option A: Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option B: Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  Option C: Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

  Option D: Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 57
  ‘Sahel’ region of Sahara desert is associated with

  Option A: the core area of Sahara desert

  Option B: southern moving edge of Sahara desert

  Option C: northern fringe of Sahara desert bordering Mediterranean sea

  Option D:  another name of Sahara desert

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 58
  Which one of the following pairs of a river and its tributary is not correctly matched?

  Option A: 

  Godavari

  :

  Wainganga

  Option B: 

  Cauvery

  :

  Bhavani

  Option C: 

  Narmada

  :

  Amaravati

  Option D: 

  Krishna

  :

  Bhima

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 59
  In which one of the following countries, the Mediterranean type of biome is found?

  Option A: Chile

  Option B: Kenya

  Option C: Argentina

  Option D: Bolivia

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 60
  Arrange the following States in order of their decreasing population size as per the census 2011.
   

  (a)	West Bengal
  (b)	Bihar
  (c)	Maharashtra
  (d)	Andhra Pradesh

  
  Codes

  Option A: b, c, a, d

  Option B: c, b, a, d

  Option C: a, d, c, b

  Option D: c, a, d, b

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 61
  Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
   

  	List I		List II
  	(River)		(Mouth of the river)
  (a)	Danube	1.	North sea
  (b)	Rhine	2.	Black sea
  (c)	Rhone	3.	Bay of Biscay
  (d)	Loire	4.	Mediterranean sea

  
  Codes

  Option A: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	1	4	3

  Option B: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	4	1	2

  Option C: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	4	1	3

  Option D: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	1	4	2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 62
  Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
   

  	List I		List II
  	(Process)		(Type of change)
  (a)	Heating camphor	1.	Chemical
  (b)	Cooling of water vapour up to room temperature	2.	Evaporation
  (c)	Cooking an egg	3.	Condensation
  (d)	Formation of water vapour at room temperature	4.	Sublimation

  
  Codes

  Option A: 

  A	B	C	D
  4	3	1	2

  Option B: 

  A	B	C	D
  4	1	3	2

  Option C: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	1	3	4

  Option D: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	3	1	4

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 63
  Identify the element having zero valency.

  Option A: Sulphur

  Option B: Phosphorus

  Option C: Lead

  Option D: Radon

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 64
  There are six electrons, six protons and six neutrons in an atom of an element. What is the atomic number of the element?

  Option A: 6

  Option B: 12

  Option C: 18

  Option D: 24

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 65
  Which one of the following has a different number of molecules? (All are kept at normal temperature and pressure)

  Option A: 3 g of hydrogen

  Option B: 48 g of oxygen

  Option C: 42 g of nitrogen

  Option D: 2 g of carbon

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 66
  Combination of one volume of nitrogen with three volumes of hydrogen produces

  Option A: one volume of ammonia

  Option B: two volume of ammonia

  Option C: three volumes of ammonia

  Option D: one and a half volumes of ammonia

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 67
  Consider the following statements about cactus:
   

  1.	The leaves are reduced to spines.
  2.	The stem does the photosynthesis.

  
  Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 2 only

  Option C: Both 1 and 2

  Option D: Neither 1 and 2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 68
  In which one of the following, methanogens, i.e., methane producing bacteria are not present ?

  Option A: Rumen of cattle

  Option B: Aerobic environment

  Option C: Anaerobic sludge

  Option D: Excreta of cattle

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 69
  Malarial parasite is a

  Option A: Bacteria

  Option B: Protozoan

  Option C: Virus

  Option D: Fungus

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 70
  With reference to biodiversity, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
   

  1.	Species richness and high degree of endemism are important criteria for identifying biodiversity hot spots.
  2.	Species diversity is highest at tropics and low at the poles.
  3.	Biodiversity conservation can be done in situ or ex situ.

  
  Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  Option A: 1 Only

  Option B: 2 and 3 only

  Option C: 1, 2 and 3

  Option D: 1 and 3 only

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 71
  It is difficult to kill viruses because they

  Option A: consist of tough protein coat

  Option B: are very small in size

  Option C: lack cellular structure

  Option D: spend a lot of time inside the host's cells

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 72
  When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then

  Option A: only the frequency changes

  Option B: frequency and velocity change

  Option C: frequency does not change

  Option D: frequency and wavelength change

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 73
  A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground with a speed of 25.2 m/s. The ball will reach the highest point of its journey in

  Option A: 5.14 s

  Option B: 3.57 s

  Option C: 2.57 s

  Option D: 1.29 s

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 74
  One kilowatt hour is equal to

  Option A: $36\times {10}^{3 }\mathrm{joule}$

  Option B: $36\times {10}^{5 }\mathrm{joule}$

  Option C: 10³ joule

  Option D: 10⁵ joule

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 75
  When sound waves are propagated through a medium, the physical quantity/quantities transmitted is/are

  Option A: matter only

  Option B: energy only

  Option C: energy and matter only

  Option D: energy, momentum, and matter

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 76
  Pressure is a scalar quantity because

  Option A: it is the ratio of force to the area and both force and area are vectors

  Option B:  it is the ratio of the magnitude of force to the area

  Option C: it is the ratio of component of force (normal to area) to area

  Option D: None of the above

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 77
  A person is unable to read a newspaper without his glasses. He is most probably suffering from

  Option A: myopia

  Option B: presbyopia

  Option C: astigmatism

  Option D: hypermetropia

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 78
  The free fall acceleration, g increases as one proceeds at sea level, from the equator toward either pole. The reason is

  Option A: Earth is a sphere with same density everywhere

  Option B: Earth is a sphere with different density at the polar regions than in the equatorial regions

  Option C: Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius greater than its polar radius by 21 km

  Option D: Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius smaller than its polar radius by 21 km

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 79
  Which one of the following statements is correct ?

  Option A: The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at the place where the spring balance is calibrated for.

  Option B: The measurement of the mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at all places.

  Option C: The measurement of the mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at the places where the acceleration due to gravity is same with the place where the spring balance is calibrated for.

  Option D: A spring balance cannot be used to measure mass at any place.

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 80
  Which one of the following is not a contact force?

  Option A: Push force

  Option B: Gravitational force

  Option C: Frictional force

  Option D: Strain force

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 81
  When a force of 1 Newton acts on a mass of 1 kg, which is able to move freely, the object moves in the direction of force with a/an

  Option A: speed of 1 km/s

  Option B: acceleration of 1 m/s­²

  Option C: speed of 1 m/s

  Option D: acceleration of 1 km/s²

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 82
  Which of the following items is used in the household wiring to prevent accidental fire in case of short circuit ?

  Option A: Insulated wire

  Option B: Plastics switches

  Option C: Non-metallic coating on conducting wires

  Option D: Electric fuse

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 83
  Which of the following are the features of the ideology of utilitarianism ?
   

  1.	Utilitarians believed that all value drives from land.
  2.	The most celebrated spokesman of utilitarianism was Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill.
  3.	Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled through indigenous laws and customs.
  4.	Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the ‘greatest good for the greatest number of people’.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1 and 4 only

  Option B: 2 amd 4 only

  Option C: 1, 2 and 4

  Option D: 2 and 3

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 84
  Who among the following invented the power-loom that revolutionised the cotton textile industry ?

  Option A: Edmund Cartwright

  Option B: Samuel Crompton

  Option C: Richard Arkwright

  Option D: James Hargreaves

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 85
  Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by

  Option A: Lord Wellesley

  Option B: Lord Dalhousie

  Option C: Lord Canning

  Option D: Lord Ripon

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 86
  Consider the following statements
   

  1.	Periplus is a Greek word meaning sailing around.
  2.	Erythraean was the Greek name for the Mediterranean Sea.

  
  Which of the statement(s) given above is are correct?

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 2 only

  Option C: Both 1 and 2

  Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 87
  Who among the following was defeated by Saina Nehwal to win the women's title of the Australian Open Super Series Badminton Tournament 2016?

  Option A: Sun Yu

  Option B: Carolina Marin

  Option C: Wang Yihan

  Option D: Sung Ji Hyun

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 88
  Consider the following statements
  
  He was an Indian journalist, editor, and author. He was associated with the statesman. The Guardian, The Times of India, etc. He received the Ramnath Goenka lifetime Achievement Award in 2013. He died in June 2016.
  
  The person referred to above is

  Option A: B K karanjia

  Option B: K M Mathew

  Option C: Inder Malhotra

  Option D: NanaSaheb Parulekar

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 89
  Achyut Lahkar, who died recently, was a

  Option A: sports administrator

  Option B: wildlife photographer

  Option C: mobile theatre personality

  Option D: bureaucrat

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 90
  Recently, Microsoft announced its 26.2 billion acquisition of which one of the following professional networking sites?

  Option A: Partner Up

  Option B: Perfect Business

  Option C: Startup Nation

  Option D: Linkedin

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 91
  Which of the following statements concerning Mediterranean climatic region are correct?
   

  1.	It is found in the latitude range 30° to 45° Northern and Southern hemisphere.
  2.	Mediterranean climate experiences extreme temperature conditions.
  3.	In the Mediterranean climate, rainfall occurs mainly during the summer season.
  4.	In the Mediterranean climate, rainfall is mainly due to Westerlies.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1, 2 and 4

  Option B: 1 and 4 only

  Option C: 1, 2 and 3

  Option D: 3 and 4

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 92
  Arrange the following states in the decreasing order of their total area under forest cover
   

  1.	Jharkhand
  2.	Chhattisgarh
  3.	Arunachal Pradesh
  4.	Madhya Pradesh

  
   Codes

  Option A: 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

  Option B: 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

  Option C: 3 – 4 – 1 – 2

  Option D: 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 93
  Which of the following statements concerning Scheduled Castes (SCs) population in India is correct?
   

  1.	The highest percentage of SC population out of the total population of the state is found in Punjab.
  2.	Bihar is the second largest state in respect of total SC population in India.
  3.	Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of SC population in India.
  4.	Among the Indian States, the lowest percentage of SC population out of the total population of the state is found in Goa.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1, 2 and 3

  Option B: 1 and 3 only

  Option C: 2 and 4 only

  Option D: 1, 2 and 4

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 94
  Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
   

  	List I		List II
  	(Element)		(Highest valency)
  (a)	Sulphur	1.	Five
  (b)	Phosphorus	2.	Six
  (c)	Lead	3.	Two
  (d)	Silver	4.	Four

  
  Code

  Option A: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	4	1	3

  Option B: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	1	4	3

  Option C: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	1	4	2

  Option D: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	4	1	2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 95
  Which one of the following species is not capable of showing disproportionation reaction ?

  Option A: ${\mathrm{CIO}}^{-}$

  Option B: ${CIO}_2^{-}$

  Option C: ${CIO}_3^{-}$

  Option D: ${CIO}_4^{-}$

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 96
  Which one of the following statements is correct?

  Option A: Covalent bonds are directional

  Option B: Ionic bonds are directional

  Option C: Both covalent and ionic bonds are directional

  Option D: Both covalent and ionic bonds are non-directional

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 97
   When one strikes a safety match, the first step is

  Option A: burning of sulfur

  Option B: decomposition of potassium chlorate into potassium chloride and oxygen

  Option C: conversion of a small amount of red phosphorus into white phosphorus

  Option D: burning of glue and starch

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 98
  The LPG cooking gas contains propane and butane as the constituents. A sulfur containing compound is added to the LPG because.

  Option A:  it lowers the cost of production

  Option B: it enhances the efficiency of LPG

  Option C: it facilitates easy detection of leakage of the gas

  Option D: it assists in liquefying hydrocarbons

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 99
  The genetic material of bacteria is found in

  Option A: nucleus

  Option B: cytoplasm

  Option C: cell membrane

  Option D: ribosome

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 100
   A horse and donkey can breed to produce a mule, which is an infertile animal. The infertility is because horse and donkey belong to different

  Option A: class

  Option B: order

  Option C: species

  Option D: genus

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 101
  A plant having yellow leaves with dead spots has the deficiency of

  Option A: potassium

  Option B: magnesium

  Option C: nitrate

  Option D: phosphate

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 102
  Fluoride toothpaste is sometimes recommended because fluoride

  Option A:  prevents plaque formation

  Option B: hardens the enamel of the tooth

  Option C: kills pathogenic bacteria

  Option D: prevents toothache

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 103
  Along a streamline flow of fluid,

  Option A:  the velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant

  Option B: the speed of a fluid particle remains constant

  Option C: the velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant

  Option D: the velocity of a fluid particle remains constant

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 104
   How is the kinetic energy of a moving object affected if the net work done on it is positive?

  Option A: Decreases

  Option B: Increases

  Option C: Remains constant

  Option D: Become zero

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 105
  A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?

  Option A: It is always in the opposite direction of velocity.

  Option B: It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation.

  Option C: It is minimum when the speed is maximum.

  Option D: It decreases as the potential energy increases.

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 106
  Which one of the following four particles, whose displacement x and acceleration are related as follows, is executing simple harmonic motion ?

  Option A: a_x = + 3x

  Option B: a_x = + 3x²

  Option C: a_x = – 3x²

  Option D: a_x = – 3x

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 107
   If we plot a graph between volume V and inverse of pressure p (i.e., $\frac{1}{P}$) for an ideal gas at constant temperature T, the curve so obtained is

  Option A:  straight line

  Option B: circle

  Option C: parabola

  Option D: hyperbola

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 108
  Which one of the following statements is correct?

  Option A: The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon the elastic property of the medium, but not on inertia property.

  Option B: The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon the inertia property of the medium, but not on elastic property.

  Option C: The speed of sound waves in a medium depends neither on its elastic property nor on its inertia property.

  Option D: The speed of sound waves in a medium depends on both elastic and inertia properties of a medium.

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 109
  Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  Option A:  Pitch of a sound is its characteristic by which we can generally differentiate between a male voice and a female voice.

  Option B: The loudness of sound is related to its frequency.

  Option C: A musical sound has certain well defined frequencies, which are generally harmonics of a fundamental frequency.

  Option D: The timbre of a particular musical sound is related to the waveform of the sound wave.

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 110
  A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2 cm. When the particle is at 1 cm from the mean position, the magnitudes of the velocity and the acceleration are equal. Then, its time period is

  Option A: $\frac{2\pi }{\sqrt{3}}$

  Option B: $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2\pi }$

  Option C: $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\pi }$

  Option D: $\frac{1}{2\pi \sqrt{3}}$

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 111
  Which one of the following is not correct?

  Option A: The longest wavelength of light visible to human eyes is about 700 nm.

  Option B: The shortest wavelength of light visible to the human eye is about 400 nm.

  Option C: The wavelength of gamma rays is longer than that of X-rays.

  Option D: The ability of telescope to form separable images of close objects is called its resolving power

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 112
  If the image of an object formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the object is placed

  Option A: at the principal focus

  Option B: at the centre of curvature

  Option C: beyond the centre of curvature

  Option D: between the pole of the mirror and the principal focus

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 113
  When three resistors, each having resistance r, are connected in parallel, their resultant resistance is x. If these three resistances are connected in series, then total resistance will be

  Option A: 3x

  Option B: 3rx

  Option C: 9x

  Option D: $\frac{3}{\times }$

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 114
  Which of the following was/were the feature(s) of Lenin’s New Economic Policy (NEP) for the Soviet Union?
   

  1.	Private retail trading was strictly forbidden.
  2.	Private enterprise was strictly forbidden.
  3.	Peasants were not allowed to sell their surplus.
  4.	To secure liquid capital, concessions were allowed to foreign capitalists, but the state retained the option of purchasing the products of such concerns.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 2 and 3

  Option C: 1, 2 and 4

  Option D: 4 only

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 115
  Which of the following was/were the reason(s) for the defeat of British during the American War of Independence?
   

  1.	The remoteness of the American Continent and the lack of good roads.
  2.	The British authorities failed to rally the loyalist Americans.
  3.	The Americans benefited from the extra ordinary military leadership of George Washington.
  4.	The Americans had access to superior arms and ammunition.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1, 2 and 4

  Option B: 3 only

  Option C: 2 and 3

  Option D: 1, 2 and 3

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 116
  The industrial revolution in England had a profound impact on the lives of people. Which of the following statements are correct about that?
   

  1.	Women were the main workers in the silk, lace-making and knitting industries.
  2.	Factory managers were well aware of the health risks of industrial work on children.
  3.	Children were often employed in textile factories.
  4.	The novel ‘Hard Times’ by Charles Dickens was a severe critique of the horrors of industrialisation.

   
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below

  Option A: 1 and 3 only

  Option B: 1 and 2

  Option C: 1, 3 and 4

  Option D: 3 and 4 only

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 117
  Consider the following statements
   

  1.	British colonialism continued to grow steadily in the 18th and 19th centuries.
  2.	Raw cotton for the textile industry in Britain during the industrial revolution needed to the imported.

  
  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 2 only

  Option C: Both 1 and 2

  Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 118
  Who among the following was the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ published in 1860?

  Option A: Reverend James Long

  Option B: Michael Madhusudan Dutta

  Option C: Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  Option D: Dinabandhu Mitra

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 119
   Which one of the following organisations was started by Jyotirao Phule in 1873?

  Option A: Prarthana Samaj

  Option B: Bahujan Samaj

  Option C: Justice Party

  Option D: Satyashodhak Samaj

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 120
  Although used earlier by French and German writers, the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English was first popularised by

  Option A: Adam Smith

  Option B: Arnold Toynbee

  Option C: James Mill

  Option D: Bertrand Russell

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 121
   In the 19th century, the majority of workers in Japan's modern industries were mainly
   

  Option A: Japanese men and children

  Option B: Japanese women and Chinese men

  Option C: Women

  Option D: Japanese and Chinese men

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 122
  Which of the following statement(s) regarding recent developments in international affairs is/are correct ?
   

  1.	NATO’s defence ministers agree to boost support for Ukraine with a comprehensive Package of Assistance, which will help it strengthen defence and modernise its armed forces.
  2.	Israel announces plans for the construction of dwelling units for Jewish settlers in a Palestinian neighbourhood of East Jerusalem.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 2 only

  Option C: Both 1 and 2

  Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 123
  As per the RBI guidelines, which one of the following is the minimum tenure of Masala Bonds that an Indian company can issue offshore ?

  Option A: Five years

  Option B: Four years

  Option C: Three years

  Option D: Two years

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 124
   Which of the following settlement(s) about Krishi Kalyan Cess (KKC) is/are correct ?
   

  1.	KKC is calculated in the same way as the service tax is calculated.
  2.	The current rate of KKC is 0.50%.
  3.	KKC is similar to the Krishi Kalyan Surcharge (KKS).

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1, 2 and 3

  Option B: 1 and 2 only

  Option C: 2 and 3 only

  Option D: 1 only

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 125
  Which country won the Thomas Cup Badminton Championship, 2016 ?

  Option A: Indonesia

  Option B: Denmark

  Option C: China

  Option D: Malaysia

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 126
  Match list I and list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
   

  	List I		List II
  	(Ultra-mega power project at different stages of development)		(State)
  (a)	Sasan	1.	Gujarat
  (b)	Mundra	2.	Madhya Pradesh
  (c)	Tilaiya	3.	Andhra Pradesh
  (d)	Krishnapatnam	4.	Jharkhand

  
  Codes

  Option A: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	4	1	3

  Option B: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	4	1	2

  Option C: 

  A	B	C	D
  2	1	4	3

  Option D: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	1	4	2

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 127
  The world's largest biomass cookstove system for cooking in a community kitchen has been installed at 

  Option A: Tirupati

  Option B: Amritsar

  Option C: Shirdi

  Option D: Udupi

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 128
  Which one of the following sectors is the largest contributor to carbon dioxide emissions from fuel consumption in India ?

  Option A: Electricity and heat production

  Option B: Transport

  Option C: Manufacturing industries and constructions

  Option D: Others

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 129
  As per census 2011, which one of the following states has the highest number of inhabited villages ?

  Option A: Uttar Pradesh

  Option B: Odisha

  Option C: Rajasthan

  Option D: Maharashtra

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 130
  The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire is

  Option A: chemical effect of current

  Option B: magnetic effect of current

  Option C: heating effect of current

  Option D: the optical property of the current

  VIEW SOLUTION

• Question 131
  Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

  Option A: The SI unit of charge is ampere second.

  Option B: Debye is the unit of dipole moment.

  Option C: The resistivity of a wire of length l and area of cross-section depends upon both l and a.

  Option D: The kinetic energy of an electron of mass m kg and charge e coulomb, when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt is eV joule.

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• Question 132
  Two balls, A and B are thrown at the same time, A vertically upward with a speed of 20 m/s from the ground and B vertically downward from a height of 40 m with the same speed and along the same line of motion. At what points do the two balls collide by taking acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m/s² ?

  Option A: The balls will collide after 3s at a height of 30.2m from the ground

  Option B: The balls will collide after 2s at a height of 20.1m from the ground

  Option C: The balls will collide after 1s at a height of 15.1m from the ground

  Option D: The balls will collide after 5s at a height of 20m from the ground

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• Question 133
  The setting time of cement is lowered by adding

  Option A: oxides of aluminium

  Option B: gypsum

  Option C: oxides of magnesium

  Option D: silica

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• Question 134
  Emulsion is known as a

  Option A: colloidal solution of substances having different physical states

  Option B: true solution

  Option C: distillation mixture for making alcohol

  Option D: colloidal solution of two liquids

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• Question 135
  If one mixes up ashes with animal fat, the substance received in the crude form is called

  Option A: pheromone

  Option B: soap

  Option C: cement

  Option D: concrete

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• Question 136
  Which of the following staements with regard to coverage rate of Aadhar cards during 2015 is/are correct ?
   

  1.	The coverage rate of Aadhar Cards in the Western part of India is high and it is above 90 per cent in Gujarat.
  2.	The coverage rate of Aadhar Cards is the highest in the Southern part of India and it is almost 100 per cent in the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
  3.	The coverage rate of Aadhar Cards is very low in North Eastern region of India and it is the lowest in Assam and Meghalaya.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 2 only

  Option B: 1 and 3 only

  Option C: 2 and 3 only

  Option D: 1, 2 and 3

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• Question 137
  Which one of the following is the correct descending order of countries in terms of per capita arable land availability ?

  Option A: India – China – Brazil

  Option B: China – Brazil – India

  Option C: Brazil – China – India

  Option D: Brazil – India – China

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• Question 138
  Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
   

  	List I		List II
  	(Geomorphic agent)		(Feature)
  (a)	Ground water	1.	Plunge pool
  (b)	Running water	2.	Horns
  (c)	Glacier	3.	Playas
  (d)	Wind	4.	Lapies

  
  Codes

  Option A: 

  A	B	C	D
  4	1	2	3

  Option B: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	2	1	4

  Option C: 

  A	B	C	D
  3	1	2	4

  Option D: 

  A	B	C	D
  4	2	1	3

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• Question 139
  Which of the following statement(s) concerning temperature is/are correct ?
   

  1.	In the winter season, isotherms in the Northern hemisphere are more or less circular on continents.
  2.	Isotherms are parallel to latitude in the Southern hemisphere in oceans.
  3.	Minimum temperature during winter is recorded in Northern Canada.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below

  Option A: 1 and 2 only

  Option B: 1 and 3 only

  Option C: 1, 2 and 3

  Option D: 2 only

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• Question 140
  Which of the following statement(s) concerning natural region of the world is/are correct ?
   

  1.	Equatorial climatic regions have less urbanisation.
  2.	Mediterranean climatic regions have a high level of urbanisation.
  3.	Equatorial climatic regions have a high concentration of human population.
  4.	Mediterranean climatic regions practice plantation farming.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  Option A: 1 and 2 only

  Option B: 1, 2 and 3

  Option C: 2 and 4

  Option D: 1 only

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• Question 141
  Which one of the following gases gives acidic solution on being dissolved in water ?

  Option A: Hydrogen

  Option B: Carbon dioxide

  Option C: Nitrogen

  Option D: Oxygen

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• Question 142
  How many moles of the hydrogen atom are present in one mole of Aluminium Hydroxide ?

  Option A: One mole

  Option B: Two moles

  Option C: Three moles

  Option D: Four moles

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• Question 143
  The United Nations proclaimed 21 June as

  Option A: International Mother Language Day

  Option B: International Widows Day

  Option C: International Day of Yoga

  Option D: International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking

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• Question 144
  Who are Bhawana Kanth, Avani Chaturvedi, and Mohana Singh ?

  Option A: Sprinters

  Option B: Rock climbers

  Option C: Fighter Pilots

  Option D: Mountaineers

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• Question 145
  Consider the following statements about the constitution of India.
   

  1.	A member of parliament enjoys the freedom of speech in the Parliament as a parliamentary privilege protected by the Constitution of India.
  2.	The Constitution has vested the power to amend the constitution in the Parliament.

  
  Which of the statements given above is are correct?

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 2 only

  Option C: Both 1 and 2

  Option D: Neither 1 nor 2

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• Question 146
  Which one of the following statements about the Union Executive in India is correct ?

  Option A: According to the Constitution of India, the total number of members the Council of Minister cannot exceed 20% of the total number of members of the House of the People.

  Option B: The rank of the different ministers is determined by the President.

  Option C: The ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

  Option D: Only a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a minister.

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• Question 147
  Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is correct ?

  Option A: A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it provides for the imposition of fines or penalties.

  Option B: A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

  Option C: The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill.

  Option D: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute arise about it.

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• Question 148
  Which one of the following power of the Prime Minister of India is codified in the Constitution of India itself ?

  Option A: The power of advising the President regarding the appointment of other ministers.

  Option B: The power to allocate business amongst the ministers.

  Option C: The power to summon the meeting of the Cabinet.

  Option D: The power to transfer a minister from one department to another.

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• Question 149
  The cylindrical stone seals were used in which civilisation ?

  Option A: Harappan

  Option B: Egyptian

  Option C: Roman

  Option D: Mesopotamian

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• Question 150
  Which of the following statements with regards to the Civil Disobedience Movement is/are correct?
   

  1.	The moment received a massive response from business Groups and peasantry.
  2.	The movement coincided with large-scalelabour upsurge in Maharashtra.
  3.	The movement was marked by the mass participation of lawyers and students.

  
  Select the correct answer using the codes gives below:

  Option A: 1 only

  Option B: 1 and 2 only

  Option C: 2 and  only

  Option D: 1, 2 and 3

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