'education in ancient india was not meant for all.' Similarily, education in british india was not also meant for all.' what do you understand by thisstatement?
Education in ancient India was not meant for all because of the caste system at that point in time. Those belonging to the lower castes were not able to access education in those social conditions.
Education during the British regime in India was also not meant for all because only those belonging to the urban areas and elite class could afford education. Here it was driven by the economic conditions and location of the individual rather than the caste.
Education during the British regime in India was also not meant for all because only those belonging to the urban areas and elite class could afford education. Here it was driven by the economic conditions and location of the individual rather than the caste.