Sir i do not agree to you completely It is said that log of x to base - Maths - Continuity and Differentiability

Question

Sir i do not agree to you completely
It is said that log of x to base x is equal to 1 then why is it
not log of 1 to base 1 is equal to 1?????
and i did not understand the reasoning behind your saying 0/0
for it

Himanshu · Accepted Answer

By definition of logarithm if $a^{x} = N$ , then x is the logarithm of N with respect to base a.

$a^{0} = 1$

Therefore, logarithm of 1 with respect to base a = 0.

$\log_{1} 1 = \frac{\log_{a} 1}{\log_{a} 1} = \frac{0}{0}$

I hope this makes things crystal clear for you.

Sir i do not agree to you completely... It is said that log of x to base x is equal to 1 then why is it not log of 1 to base 1 is equal to 1????? and i did not understand the reasoning behind your saying 0/0 for it...

Sir i do not agree to you completely...

It is said that log of x to base x is equal to 1 then why is it not log of 1 to base 1 is equal to 1?????

and i did not understand the reasoning behind your saying 0/0 for it...