Sir i do not agree to you completely...

It is said that log of x to base x is equal to 1 then why is it not log of 1 to base 1 is equal to 1?????

and i did not understand the reasoning behind your saying 0/0 for it...

By definition of logarithm if , then x is the logarithm of N with respect to base a.

Therefore, logarithm of 1 with respect to base a = 0.

I hope this makes things crystal clear for you.

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