Sir, is mass directly proportional to inertia, as if mass increases inertia also increases. If they are not directly proportional why sir and if they are can we say that Mass/Inertia =Constant , sir
Actually we cannot explicitly say that "mass is directly proportional to inertia", since inertia is just a quantity that represents the tendency of an object to resist any change in its configuration and location. Mass acts as a measure of this tendency, however it does not, or rather cannot be said to be directly proportional to the tendency(inertia). What you are saying can be said to be true, however, if you consider moment of inertia(this is taught in the chapter "Rotational Mechanics" in 11th standard), there, we have a formula for moment of inertia(I) given by,
I = MR2 ,
for a point particle rotating about an axis located at a perpendicular distance 'R' from the rotating particle .
There, you will be taught that moment of inertia of a rotating body is analogous to the mass of a translating body, just as angular velocity of a rotating body is analogous to the velocity of a translating body.
From the above formula, you can clearly infer that I/M = R2 , which is a constant.
So you can say that for a rotating body, we can explicitly define such a relation, while for a translating body we generally do not, and just consider it as a measure or a tendency.
Hope this helps!
Cheers!!
I = MR2 ,
for a point particle rotating about an axis located at a perpendicular distance 'R' from the rotating particle .
There, you will be taught that moment of inertia of a rotating body is analogous to the mass of a translating body, just as angular velocity of a rotating body is analogous to the velocity of a translating body.
From the above formula, you can clearly infer that I/M = R2 , which is a constant.
So you can say that for a rotating body, we can explicitly define such a relation, while for a translating body we generally do not, and just consider it as a measure or a tendency.
Hope this helps!
Cheers!!